25 Questions on Indian Polity
1. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the stability
of the
State of India?
(a)
Article 100
(b)
Article 200
(c)
Article 300
(d)
Article 330
2.
The Chairman
of which of the following
parliamentary committees is invariably
from the members of ruling party?
(a)
Committee
on Public Undertakings
(b)
Public Accounts Committee
(c)
Estimates
Committee
(d)
Committee on Delegated Legislation
3.
Which of the
following is not a formally prescribed device available to the members of
Parliament?
(a)
Question Hour
(b)
Zero Hour
(c)
Half-an-hour
discussion
(d)
Short duration discussion
4.
Which
of the following is exclusively a committee of the Lower House:
(a)
Committee
on Assurances
(b)
Committee on Delegated Legislation
(c)
Committee
on Public Undertakings
(d)
Estimates
Committee
5.
Which one of the
following devices calls the attention of minister towards a matter of public
importance?
(a)
Half-an-hour
discussion
(b)
Calling attention notice
(c)
Short duration discussion
(d)
Adjournment
motion
6.
Central Vigilance Commission was set up on the recommendation of:
(a)
Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(b)
Gorwala Report
(c)
Kripalani
Committee
(d)
Santhanam Committee
7.
The
institution of Lokayukta was created for the first time by the state of:
(a)
Orissa
(b)
Bihar
(c)
Pubjab
(d)
Maharashtra
8. The institution of Lokayukta was created first in Maharashtra in:
(a) 1970
(b) 1972
(c) 1973
(d) 1971
9.
The
correct statements about zero hour includes:
1. It is the first hour of every sitting
in both the houses of
Parliament.
2. It is mentioned in the Rules
of Business of the houses
of Parliament.
3. During this time, matters
are raised without
any prior notice.
4.
It is the time immediately following
the Question Hour in both the
houses of Parliament.
5.
It
is an Indian innovation in parliamentary procedure since 1964.
(a)
2, 3
and 4
(b)
3 and
4
(c)
1, 2
and 5
(d)
2, 3
and 5
10. The correct
statements about calling
attention notice are:
1.
It is a device of
calling the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.
2.
Its
main purpose is to seek an authoritative statement from the minister.
3. It does not involve
any censure against
government.
4.
It is an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure since 1952.
5. It is not mentioned in the Rules of Business
and Procedure.
(a)
1, 2,
3 and 4
(b)
4 and
5
(c)
1, 2,
3 and 5
(d)
1, 2
and 3
11. Which of the following
statements are true of Adjournment Motion?
1.
It is an
extraordinary procedure which sets aside the normal business of the House.
2.
Its main object is to
draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent public importance.
3.
The
Rajya Sabha can make use of this
procedure.
4. It must be supported
by not less than 50 members for
introduction.
5. It involves
an element of censure against
government.
(a)
1, 2,
4 and 5
(b)
2, 3
and 5
(c)
2, 3
and 4
(d)
1, 2
and 4
12.
Which of the
following statements are incorrect about the difference between the writ
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts in India?
1.
The Supreme Court can
issue writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights but
also for any other purpose, whereas high courts can issue writs only for the
purpose of enforcement of Fundamental
Rights.
2.
High courts can issue
the writ of Injunction, whereas the Supreme Court cannot issue the writ of
Injunction.
3.
The Supreme Court can
issue writs only in the case of appeal, whereas high courts can issue writs
only when the party directly approaches it.
4. High courts can issue writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of
Fundamental Rights but also for
any other purpose, whereas the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the
purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
(a)
1 and
2
(b)
1, 2
and 3
(c)
2 and
3
(d)
4 only
13.
In parliamentary
countries, like India, the legislative control over administration is
considerably reduced and restricted in effectiveness due to which of the
following reasons?
1.
The
expansion in the volume and variety of administrative work.
2. Frequent use of Guillitone.
3.
The
large size of the legislature.
4. The members
of the legislature are laymen.
5. The financial committees do post mortem work.
(a)
1, 2
and 5
(b)
2, 3
and 4
(c)
2, 3,
4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
14.
No-confidence Motion,
to be admitted in the Lok Sabha, needs the support of:
(a)
80 Members
(b)
140 Members
(c)
160 Members
(d)
50 Members
15. Which of the following
statements are incorrect about unstarred question?
1. It is distinguished by an asterisk
mark.
2. Answer to such a question is given orally.
3. Answer to such a question is not followed
by supplementary questions.
4. It does not carry
an asterisk mark.
5. Answer to such a question is given in a written
form.
(a)
2 and
3
(b)
3, 4
and 5
(c)
1 and
2
(d)
2, 3
and 4
16.
In which of the
following stated years, the Lokpal Bill was not introduced in the Parliament?
(a) 1968
(b) 1971
(c) 1978
(d) 1985
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
17.
Assertion: The writ
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts in India is same.
Reason: Both, the Supreme Court and the High
Court can issue the writs of Habeas
Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo warranto.
Answer the following questions
by using the codes given
below.
(a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(b)
Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c)
A is true but R is false.
(d)
A is false but R is true.
18.
Assertion: In
democracy, the ultimate responsibility of administration is to the people.
Reason: The democratic government is based on
the principle of popular sovereignty.
Answer the following questions
by using the codes given
below.
(a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(b)
Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c)
A is true but R is false.
(d)
A is false but R is true.
Matching Pattern
Match List-I with List-II and
select correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
19. List-I List-II
A.
Short
duration discussion 1. 1964
B.
Calling attention notice 2. 1962
C.
Zero
Hour 3. 1953
D.
Committee on Public Undertakings 4. 1954
Codes: A B C D
|
(a) |
4 |
3 |
1 |
2 |
|
(b) |
3 |
4 |
2 |
1 |
|
(c) |
4 |
2 |
1 |
3 |
|
(d) |
3 |
2 |
4 |
1 |
|
20.
List-I (Writs) A.
Mandamus B.
Habeas Corpus C.
Quo
warranto |
|
List-II (Literal meanings) 1. ‘By what
warrant or authority’ 2. ‘We command’ 3. ‘To be
certified’ |
|
D.
Certiorari the body of’ Codes: A B C |
D |
4. ‘You may have the body’
or ‘To have |
|
(a) |
2 |
3 |
4 |
1 |
|
(b) |
2 |
4 |
3 |
1 |
|
(c) |
1 |
4 |
2 |
3 |
|
(d) |
2 |
4 |
1 |
3 |
21.
List-I (Provisions) List-II (Contained in)
A.
Writ
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court 1. Article
13
B.
Suits
against government 2. Article
226
C.
Writ
jurisdiction of the High Court 3.
Article 300
D.
Source of the power
of judicial review 4. Article
32
5. Article 166
Codes: A B C D
|
(a) |
4 |
3 |
5 |
1 |
|
(b) |
3 |
4 |
2 |
5 |
|
(c) |
4 |
3 |
2 |
1 |
|
(d) |
5 |
4 |
3 |
2 |
22.
The final work of UPSC in recruitment process
is:
(a)
Selection
(b)
Appointment
(c)
Certification
(d)
Placement
23.
The conditions of service of members of All-India Services are determined by:
(a)
President of India
(b)
Constitution
of India
(c)
Parliament
of India
(d)
Union Public Service
Commission
24.
Constitutional safeguards to civil servants are ensured by:
(a)
Art. 310
(b)
Art. 315
(c)
Art. 312
(d)
Art. 311
25.
Assertion: India has
imposed severe restrictions on the political activities of civil servants.
Reason: The civil
servants in India enjoy the right to
vote.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following
questions by using
the following codes.
(a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(b)
Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c)
A is true but R is false.
(d)
A is false but R is true.
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